IFR vs intentionally dropped fly ball

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Feb 3, 2011
1,880
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Yes. There was only a runner at first. IFR was not in effect.

Thanks, Amy - I've gotta pay closer attention. :)

That is an ASA rule question I've wanted to ask MTR about. Why does IFR require runners on 1st and 2nd or bases loaded? Why isn't the offense protected on an infield fly when there's only a runner on 1B with no other bases occupied?
 
May 17, 2012
2,803
113
In theory a dropped IF fly ball with a runner on 1rst only would result in a one for one trade (they are not factoring a double play here, assuming the batter hustles down the line).

In other words they would force out the runner at second but not double up the batter.

Surely there is a rule that prevents intentional dropping (when it is obvious). "Making a mockery of the game..."??
 
Jan 25, 2011
2,278
38
Thanks, Amy - I've gotta pay closer attention. :)

That is an ASA rule question I've wanted to ask MTR about. Why does IFR require runners on 1st and 2nd or bases loaded? Why isn't the offense protected on an infield fly when there's only a runner on 1B with no other bases occupied?
I would think that the the batter is expected to run that out.
 
Mar 13, 2010
957
0
Columbus, Ohio
In theory a dropped IF fly ball with a runner on 1rst only would result in a one for one trade (they are not factoring a double play here, assuming the batter hustles down the line).

In other words they would force out the runner at second but not double up the batter.

Surely there is a rule that prevents intentional dropping (when it is obvious). "Making a mockery of the game..."??

Good explanation regarding the infield fly. The rule is to protect the offense from multiple outs. With only one runner on base, the odds are that the batter is going to reach first before the defense can "pull a fast one" to get multiple outs.

There is a rule that addresses a player intentionally dropping a fly ball that could be caught with ordinary effort. But it doesn't have anything to do with "making a mockery of the game". It is, simply, the intentionally dropped fly ball rule.

By the way, when the infield fly rule is invoked, it takes precedence over the intentionally dropped ball rule. Why? Because the batter is already out on the infield fly. He can't be called out twice! And, with the batter already out, all force outs are removed which pretty much eliminates any possibility of getting extra outs by purposely dropping the ball.
 

MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
48
Thanks, Amy - I've gotta pay closer attention. :)

That is an ASA rule question I've wanted to ask MTR about. Why does IFR require runners on 1st and 2nd or bases loaded? Why isn't the offense protected on an infield fly when there's only a runner on 1B with no other bases occupied?

What Bretman said. :) And it should be noted that if the BR doesn't run to 1B, the offense really doesn't deserve that protection. You see that more in SP and I would think a BR not running out a batted ball would be quite a rarity.
 

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