That's not necessarily the case. The batter is credited with whatever number of bases the winning run scored if the batter advances as many bases.Everyone who said 5-2, assuming every runner touched home, is right. Anything in the field is 3-2 final and could be single or double depending on which base the hitter touched before the winning run scored.
That's not necessarily the case. The batter is credited with whatever number of bases the winning run scored if the batter advances as many bases.
For example, tie score in the last inning with a runner at third base and two outs. Batter hits a fly ball deep down the line that the outfielder gives chase. The batter rounds first and reaches second while the ball is still in the air heading for the corner. Finally, the ball hits off the top of the fence in fair territory and bounces back toward the field for a hit. Even though the batter reached second base before the run scored, she is only credited with a single since the winning run only needed to advance one base.
I hadn't thought of it that way, but if the batter hits second, has for all intents and purposes a double under any other scenario, why wouldn't this be a double? Is it because where the batter ends up is irrelevant if the runner on 2 is the winning run? I want to get this right, but am still struggling with why the batter-runner only gets one base.That's not necessarily the case. The batter is credited with whatever number of bases the winning run scored if the batter advances as many bases.
For example, tie score in the last inning with a runner at third base and two outs. Batter hits a fly ball deep down the line that the outfielder gives chase. The batter rounds first and reaches second while the ball is still in the air heading for the corner. Finally, the ball hits off the top of the fence in fair territory and bounces back toward the field for a hit. Even though the batter reached second base before the run scored, she is only credited with a single since the winning run only needed to advance one base.
I hadn't thought of it that way, but if the batter hits second, has for all intents and purposes a double under any other scenario, why wouldn't this be a double? Is it because where the batter ends up is irrelevant if the runner on 2 is the winning run? I want to get this right, but am still struggling with why the batter-runner only gets one base.
She only gets one base in the scenario I mentioned because the runner who scored the winning run only needed to advance one base to end the game. I don't know why the rule is written that way, but perhaps it's because it prevents shenanigans from taking place for the sole purpose of padding stats.I hadn't thought of it that way, but if the batter hits second, has for all intents and purposes a double under any other scenario, why wouldn't this be a double? Is it because where the batter ends up is irrelevant if the runner on 2 is the winning run? I want to get this right, but am still struggling with why the batter-runner only gets one base.