Watching the Tennessee game vs Stanford and it looked like the ump correctly didn’t award the base to the batter. But both times the pitches were given as balls. They looked like strikes if not hit by the batter.
Is it the umpires discretion to rule ball or strike when a base isn’t awarded. If it is automatically a ball what stops a batter from Intentionally getting hit by strikes.
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Is it the umpires discretion to rule ball or strike when a base isn’t awarded. If it is automatically a ball what stops a batter from Intentionally getting hit by strikes.
Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk