I completely agree with YOCOACH. R3 should have slid to avoid collision. Because she did not, INT is correct call. Run counts, 3 outs, inning over. ASA Rule 7.J.2.
What's your call?
- Thread starter umpodie
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I completely agree with YOCOACH. R3 should have slid to avoid collision. Because she did not, INT is correct call. Run counts, 3 outs, inning over. ASA Rule 7.J.2.
I absolutely agree. However, in this case as stated in the OP, catcher was up in the left side batters box. Had R3 slid, chances are she would have not made contact at all unless it was on purpose. Since she did not slide and did make contact with the catcher after crossing home plate, INT by a retired player.
Greenmonsters
Wannabe Duck Boat Owner
With this logic, the run would still count even if R3, after scoring, intentionally reached out and hit the catcher's arm to cause a bad throw???
That's the way I called it. R3 scored run counts. R2 is now closest to home so is out due to INT. Third out inning over. I've seen players try to do exactly what you're saying. Usually that pulls another rule into effect which can cause a possible player ejection from the game if in the judgment of the umpire malicious contact was made.
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I think it does. Please note that I said R3 should've slid to avoid collision.
- Feb 3, 2011
- 1,880
- 48
Right, just as the runner can interfere *without* sliding. If I judge that the runner deliberately collided with the defender attempting to make a play, then I'm calling an immediate dead ball.
As I've read this scenario, the only real question is whether the offense should be allowed to benefit in this bases-loaded situation. Specifically, if the scoring runner interferes with the catcher's throw AFTER crossing home plate on what would've been the 3rd out of the inning - the force at 1B - does the run come off the board?
Greenmonsters
Wannabe Duck Boat Owner
This ^^^^ is my question. Thank you!
In the OP, the runner has legally scored prior to the interference. Granted, it seems to be a very small amount of time between the two occurrances, but there is a definite window in there.
Why do some posters want to take the run off the board? The penalty is that the closest runner to home is out, and in this case, the third out and the offense is done for the inning.
If there were no rules violations until after the runner scored, why should the defense get the advantage of the run being taken off the board?
Why do some posters want to take the run off the board? The penalty is that the closest runner to home is out, and in this case, the third out and the offense is done for the inning.
If there were no rules violations until after the runner scored, why should the defense get the advantage of the run being taken off the board?
Okay, I agree with you about not scoring the R3 run if she interfered with F2 to assist he 3rd out. That makes good sense to me. I guess I got a bit off topic not as concise as I should have been. I still agree with YOCOACH but qualify that R3 should have slid and avoided contact.
