- Jun 22, 2008
- 3,438
- 48
The interference rules deal with the last base the runners have touched at the time of the interference. If R2 had not yet reached 3rd base at the time R3 interfered with F2, then yes it would be considered a forced 3rd out and the run would not count. But, based on R3 having reached the plate and interfering after scoring it is highly likely R2 also reached 3rd prior to the interference. If so, R2 would no longer be a force out, the run would score and R2 would be called out ending the inning.
Thanks for saving me all those keystrokes