As the play was described; probably not, but it could happen.
Maybe not very likely...but it was your scenario, not mine!
More likely would be that at the time of the interference the batter-runner had advanced close enough to first base (but not yet reached it) that the umpire could judge there was no play there (ie: no chance for F4 to retire the B/R with a throw).
Or maybe not. Those are all things the umpire has to see and judge for himself.
If F6 is only 1 step clear of the bag, and the runner can reach/touch the bag with her slide, the runner contact w/ F6 doesn't seem like a clear cut INT call to me. Thoughts?
Definitely "had to be there". The part that might make a diference- the OP said that the runner "changed directions" prior to sliding. Kind of makes it sound like she went out of her way, away from the base, to go after the fielder.
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