Quick obstruction question

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Jun 6, 2016
2,730
113
Chicago
Runner on first. Ball hit on the ground to left field, gets by the LF. Runner collides (technically, was unintentionally tripped by) with the second baseman rounding second. Does not attempt to advance because by the time she got up, the ball was on its way back into the infield.

Umpire calls obstruction (100% the correct call), awards the runner third. He also awarded the batter-runner second, saying that she would have advanced to second had the obstruction on the other runner not have occurred.

He was absolutely right in his opinion, but I thought the only other runners who could advance on obstruction are ones forced to advance. Was putting the batter-runner on second the correct call?
 
Jun 22, 2008
3,767
113
The rule says the obstructed runner and any other runners affected by the obstruction are all to be awarded the base or bases they would have reached absent the obstruction. If the umpire judged the batter/runner would have reached 2nd if the lead runner had not been obstructed, then yes that is the correct call.
 

Strike2

Allergic to BS
Nov 14, 2014
2,056
113
Don't you need to attempt to reach the next base to be awarded said base?

Nothing in the rules about that, but in practice, the final result can be affected by the action of the runner.

In my experience, if a runner is "lightly" obstructed, but makes no attempt to advance despite the opportunity being there (next base is open), the umpire sometimes leaves the runner where they stopped. For example, a runner is bumped rounding 1B...umpire sees it and signals, but the runner elects to stay at 1B even though there's no one ahead of her. As a base coach, I've learned to immediately look at the nearest field umpire if I see what looks like obstruction. If I see a signal, I'll send the runner.

In this situation, the batter couldn't advance beyond 1B because the runner at 2B was obstructed to the point where she was on the ground and the ball in the deep OF. Umpires will award bases when that happens most every time.
 
Jun 6, 2016
2,730
113
Chicago
The rule says the obstructed runner and any other runners affected by the obstruction are all to be awarded the base or bases they would have reached absent the obstruction. If the umpire judged the batter/runner would have reached 2nd if the lead runner had not been obstructed, then yes that is the correct call.

Gotcha. Thanks.
 

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