scenario:
Runner 1 at 1B
Batter/Runner grounds sharply to the second baseman.
Ball, Runner1, and F4 arrive at same place at same time.
Intereference is called.
F4 manages to field ball, tag Runner1 out, and throw Batter/Runner out at 1B.
Question: Is Interference an immediate dead ball? and if so, what happens to the batter/runner? Out at 1B? Safe at 1B? or Sent back to continue the at-bat?
I know with an Obstruction call play does continue to an end point. Cant remember with Interference....
[Later Edit] As a spectator I was way out beyond the OF fence (COVID rules) and didn't quite understand the play correctly. As it turns out, the Field ump never called Interference, AND the Batter/Runner was originally called safe at 1B. But then opposing coach asked the plate Ump to "help" the Field Ump. The Umps conferred, and then said the Runner1 didn't Interfere with the F4 play on the ball, but DID interfere with the throw to 1B. So they called Runner1 out (on the tag) AND Batter/Runner out (Runner1 Interference). I think this is incorrect umpire mechanics? Can you retroactively impose an Interference call, after the play has ended? Or does Interference HAVE to be called in real-time? (my thinking is that it must be called in real-time)
Runner 1 at 1B
Batter/Runner grounds sharply to the second baseman.
Ball, Runner1, and F4 arrive at same place at same time.
Intereference is called.
F4 manages to field ball, tag Runner1 out, and throw Batter/Runner out at 1B.
Question: Is Interference an immediate dead ball? and if so, what happens to the batter/runner? Out at 1B? Safe at 1B? or Sent back to continue the at-bat?
I know with an Obstruction call play does continue to an end point. Cant remember with Interference....
[Later Edit] As a spectator I was way out beyond the OF fence (COVID rules) and didn't quite understand the play correctly. As it turns out, the Field ump never called Interference, AND the Batter/Runner was originally called safe at 1B. But then opposing coach asked the plate Ump to "help" the Field Ump. The Umps conferred, and then said the Runner1 didn't Interfere with the F4 play on the ball, but DID interfere with the throw to 1B. So they called Runner1 out (on the tag) AND Batter/Runner out (Runner1 Interference). I think this is incorrect umpire mechanics? Can you retroactively impose an Interference call, after the play has ended? Or does Interference HAVE to be called in real-time? (my thinking is that it must be called in real-time)
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