Rules question

[canyonjoe]

Situation

Bases loaded one out.

Batter hits a line drive towards RF. Ball hits the runner leaving 1st base and proceeds to outfield.

Ump lets play go on we score 2 runs and he call runner who was hit out after the play.

I argue that ball was past both infielders, he says that 2B still had a shot for the ball. I was coaching 3rd didn't have a great angle
so I accept the out. I'm them waiting for them to bring the runners back, but ump says nothing and the other coach who is a very
good coach says nothing.

After the inning I asked the ump why he let the 2 runs score. I thought if it hit the runner with a chance for an infielder to make a play then it was
a dead ball. He said I was wrong and I let it go as it helped me.

Am I crazy or should it have been dead we get an out from runner from 1st, batter gets a single and we should have had the bases loaded with no runs?

 

[SoCalASABlue]

Based on your scenario - if the runner was called out for being hit with the batted ball - dead ball, runner is out (2nd out), hitter gets 1B, all runners that scored return to the last base legally occupied.

 

[canyonjoe]

Thanks, that's what I thought. I certainly had no desire to argue to get 2 runs taken away, but was shocked other coach said nothing too.

 

[Jquick823]

We had this situation happen to us. We were on defense ball hits runner leaving first 2nd base still fields it and flips to 1st. Based on your scenario that should be a double play but the call was dead ball runner is out batter on first.

 

[CoreSoftball20]

No idea why he let the runners score since he deemed the ball dead.

 

[canyonjoe]

He didn't deem the ball dead, but he should have.