Question on interference on runner after scoring

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Feb 6, 2020
100
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Runner touches home plate and jogs about 4 steps back toward her 1st base dugout when a bad throw hits her. Runner from 3rd base was already heading home reading the ball up the line with no one covering home plate with the catcher chasing the ball up the 1st base line. The ball got by the catcher before hitting the runner. Would the correct call be that, if in the umpires judgement, the ball hitting the recently scoring runner prevented the catcher from making a potential play on the runner coming home, the runner coming how would be out? If in the umpires judgement, the catcher had no chance of making a play on the runner coming in from 3rd base, no interference would be called?
Would the call be different if the runner was holding at 3rd base until they saw the ball get by the catcher and then headed home? Thanks for any help.
 
May 29, 2015
3,731
113
NO potential play always = NO interference. (And now somebody will find an exception to that ... :giggle: )

You did not mention the code, so this could vary but will pretty well be uniform. As you describe it (and having not seen it), I have nothing on this -- it does not sound like a play was interfered with. If a retired runner is walking to the dugout and gets nailed in the back, I would have to say 99.999% of the time she did the defense a favor by knocking the ball down rather than interfering with a play.

In USA and NFHS, intent does not matter. I haven't looked up other codes, but I am pretty sure it is the same. (Note: I know some baseball codes differ on that though.) You didn't ask about this, but I feel the need to mention it.

I am not understanding the last part. Are you asking if it is different for a runner versus a retired/scored runner?
 
Feb 6, 2020
100
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Sorry, last part I was asking if it would make a difference when the runner at 3rd base went home. Basically, if the runner didn't start running home until after the potential interference happened with the runner who had just scored, would it make any difference?
Also, would there ever be a situation where the solution was sending the runner that was at 3rd base, back to 3rd base because the ball hit the runner that scored? That was the original call but was changed after a short conference between umps and it was pointed out that no one was at home to receive a throw. The rule set is USSA. Thanks
 

Tex

Sep 13, 2011
46
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In NFHS, I agree with the Man in Blue, "Intent does not matter". Dead ball, count the run, and the runner closes to home plate is out.
 
May 29, 2015
3,731
113
@sprtfan ... ahh, now I see!

I am going to say the timing of the next runner coming in could be a factor since that timing could determine if there was a play to be made. If there was no play regardless, then it would not matter.

If you are going to rule it interference, the ball is immediately dead. In that regard, the timing of that runner does not matter.

As for “just sending the runner back instead of calling her out” I am going to say in a low-level or local league format this would be acceptable practice IF it is an adopted rule. Under sanctioned rule books, I cannot think of an instance where “lessening” a penalty is normal or accepted.
 
Feb 6, 2020
100
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@The Man In Blue One last question on this I think, would there be a point in time while scoring that the runner would be protected from interference? If she just finished completing a slide across the plate and a throw bounced off her helmet for example. If that wouldn't be interference, at what point would it? Once she stood up or took a step? Or would it depend on when the umpire called her safe? Thanks
 
May 29, 2019
269
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Maybe I can't quite picture the situation, but I don't see how there could be any type of interference...there is no play being made. The defence makes a wild throw that hits the player, whom is away from where the play would have been, but the defence should be rewarded with an "out"? I just don't see how that could happen.
 
Feb 13, 2021
880
93
MI
Not sure how this can be interference, as described the ball had already passed the C. Offense actually does the defense a favor by knocking down the ball UNLESS IF AND ONLY IF there was a fielder backing up the C and in a position to field the overthrow.
 
Feb 13, 2021
880
93
MI
There have been a LOT of interference questions lately. While I am glad to get in the mud and suss out the intricacies of the various rules and codes, for the most part these are 'have to be there' plays. So much depends on where exactly the players are, what the ball is doing. Even when there is video, we have trouble really coming to an understanding of what an umpire 'sees' or gives weight to. I think most umpires here, seeing a play on video, 1 time at live speed, will come to a consensus ruling, but when it gets dissected and parsed frame by frame and everyone wants to know why this and not that, then things can get confused.
 

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