HBP - ball or strike?

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Jun 6, 2018
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Yesterday in HS game had a batter get hit a third time and the ump finally correctly called the girl back as she was standing on the plate all 3 times turning into the plate and getting hit.

My question on this call comes in as the batter had 0 balls 2 strikes on her and leaned over the plate and took it in the hip. The pitch would have been strike 3. The ump called her back to hit and said the pitch was a ball and the count was then 1-2. I disagreed with the ball since it hit her in the hip over the plate, an obvious strike if caught by the catcher. He said the pitch could only be called a ball since he did not award her 1st base for stepping into the pitch.

Is that true or could he have said the pitch would have been a strike and correctly called it a strike?
 
Apr 20, 2015
961
93
Ha ha...your lucky he knew he could call her back and knew half the rule. The umpire absolutely could have struck her out, its always the umpires judgement if the pitch was a ball or a strike.

Sent from my SM-G960U using Tapatalk
 

Strike2

Allergic to BS
Nov 14, 2014
2,044
113
With perhaps one exception, a pitch that hits a player is a dead ball with 1st awarded or a strike. Swinging at a pitch that hits the player or the player getting hit while the ball is in the strike zone is a strike. If it happens on strike three, the batter is out.

The only way I can see a "ball" called on a pitch that hits the batter is where an umpire calls illegal pitch, and the player leans into it over the plate. Would like to hear from one of our resident umpires to see if I'm correct.
 

MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
48
The only way I can see a "ball" called on a pitch that hits the batter is where an umpire calls illegal pitch, and the player leans into it over the plate. Would like to hear from one of our resident umpires to see if I'm correct.

Not true. It is a strike if the umpire judged the ball would have been a strike had it not hit the batter
 
Jun 22, 2008
3,731
113
One more example of why the rule change by NFHS and NCAA on the hit by pitch was one of the more moronic ideas anyone has ever had. It didn't take a brain surgeon to understand that batters were going to start crowding the plate and dare the pitcher to throw on the inside corner. And it really doesn't help that it seems about 80% of umpires refuse to read the entire rule. They get to the statement about "no attempt to avoid is required" and stop reading. The fact of the ,matter is, the batter is still required to avoid being hit by a pitched ball, UNLESS the ball is ENTIRELY in the batters box.
 

Strike2

Allergic to BS
Nov 14, 2014
2,044
113
"The only way I can see a "ball" called on a pitch that hits the batter is where an umpire calls illegal pitch, and the player leans into it over the plate. Would like to hear from one of our resident umpires to see if I'm correct."

Not true. It is a strike if the umpire judged the ball would have been a strike had it not hit the batter

MTR...How does an illegal pitch become a strike? It's illegal before it leaves the pitcher's hand, and it is often called by umpires in mid-flight. If it then hits the batter, does the illegal call then suddenly disappear because the batter was leaning over the plate?
 
Last edited:
Jun 22, 2008
3,731
113
"The only way I can see a "ball" called on a pitch that hits the batter is where an umpire calls illegal pitch, and the player leans into it over the plate. Would like to hear from one of our resident umpires to see if I'm correct."



MTR...How does an illegal pitch become a strike? It's illegal before it leaves the pitcher's hand, and it is often called by umpires in mid-flight. If it then hits the batter, does the illegal call then suddenly disappear because the batter was leaning over the plate?

The pitch is still called for what it is. If the batter leaned in over the plate and prevented the ball from entering the strike zone, it is still called as a dead ball strike. After that the IP penalty is applied and a ball would be awarded to the batter, unless there was some other action the offensive coach chose to take the result of the play instead of the penalty.
 

Strike2

Allergic to BS
Nov 14, 2014
2,044
113
The pitch is still called for what it is. If the batter leaned in over the plate and prevented the ball from entering the strike zone, it is still called as a dead ball strike. After that the IP penalty is applied and a ball would be awarded to the batter, unless there was some other action the offensive coach chose to take the result of the play instead of the penalty.

So, while a dead ball strike would be the INITIAL call, it would be changed to a "ball" because of the illegal pitch, if that's what the offensive coach chooses. That said...in this scenario (a batter hit because she leaned into the strike zone), what ELSE could the offensive coach possibly choose?
 
Jun 22, 2008
3,731
113
I said if there was some other action the coach chose to take the result of the play over the penalty. If there is no other playing action then the coach gets no option.

Sent from my Pixel 2 using Tapatalk
 

MTR

Jun 22, 2008
3,438
48
So, while a dead ball strike would be the INITIAL call, it would be changed to a "ball" because of the illegal pitch, if that's what the offensive coach chooses. That said...in this scenario (a batter hit because she leaned into the strike zone), what ELSE could the offensive coach possibly choose?

Comp beat me to it. Even if it is an IP, the pitch should still be called whatever it was at that time.
 

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